# Multitype Branching Processes

One of the fundamental objects in classical probability theory is the Galton-Watson branching process. This is defined to be a model for the growth of a population, where each individual in a generation gives birth to some number (possibly zero) of offspring, who form the next generation. Crucially, the numbers of offspring of the individuals are IID, with the same distribution both within generations and between generations.

There are several ways one might generalise this, such as non-IID offspring distributions, or pairs of individuals producing some number of offspring, but here we consider the situation where each individual has some type, and different types have different offspring distributions. Note that if there are K types, say, then the offspring distributions should now be supported on $\mathbb{Z}_{\ge 0}^K$. Let’s say the offspring distribution from a parent of type i is $\mu^{(i)}$.

The first question to address is one of survival. Recall that if we want to know whether a standard Galton-Watson process has positive probability of having infinite size, that is never going extinct, we only need to know the expectation of the offspring distribution. If this is less than 1, then the process is subcritical and is almost surely finite. If it is greater than 1, then it is supercritical and survives with positive probability. If the expectation is exactly 1 (and the variance is finite) then the process is critical and although it is still almost surely finite, the overall population size has a power-law tail, and hence (or otherwise) the expected population size is infinite.

We would like a similar result for the multitype process, saying that we do not need to know everything about the distribution to decide what the survival probability should be.

The first thing to address is why we can’t just reduce the multitype change to the monotype setting. It’s easiest to assume that we know the type of the root in the multitype tree. The case where the type of the root is random can be reconstructed later. Anyway, suppose now that we want to know the offspring distribution of a vertex in the m-th generation. To decide this, we need to know the probability that this vertex has a given type, say type j. To calculate this, we need to work out all the type possibilities for the first m generations, and their probabilities, which may well include lots of complicated size-biasing. Certainly it is not easy, and there’s no reason why these offspring distributions should be IID. The best we can say is that they should probably be exchangeable within each generation.

Obviously if the offspring distribution does not depend on the parent’s type, then we have a standard Galton-Watson tree with types assigned in an IID manner to the realisation. If the types are symmetric (for example if M, to be defined, is invariant under permuting the indices) then life gets much easier. In general, however, it will be more complicated than this.

We can however think about how to decide on survival probability. We consider the expected number of offspring, allowing both the type of the parent and the type of the child to vary. So define $m_{ij}$ to be the expected number of type j children born to a type i parent. Then write these in a matrix $M=(m_{ij})$.

One generalisation is to consider a Galton-Watson forest started from some positive number of roots of various types. Suppose we have a vector $\nu=(\nu_i)$ listing the number of roots of each type. Then the expected number of descendents of each type at generation n is given by the vector $\nu M^n$.

Let $\lambda$ be the largest eigenvalue of M. As for the transition matrices of Markov chains, the Perron-Frobenius theorem applies here, which confirms that, because the entries of M are positive, the eigenvalue with largest modulus is simple and real, and the associated eigenvector has entirely positive entries. [In fact we need a couple of extra conditions on M, including that it is possible to get from any type to any other type – we say irreducible – but that isn’t worth going into now.]

So in fact the total number of descendents at generation n grows like $\lambda^n$ in expectation, and so we have the same description of subcriticality and supercriticality. We can also make a sensible comment about the left-$\lambda$-eigenvector of M. This is the limiting proportion of the different types of vertices.

It’s a result (eg. [3]) that the height profile of a depth-first search on a standard Galton-Watson tree converges to Brownian Motion. Another way to phrase this is that a GW tree conditioned to have some size N has the Brownian Continuum Random Tree as a scaling limit as N grows to infinity. Miermont [4] proves that this result holds for the multitype tree as well. In the remainder of this post I want to discuss one idea along the way to the proof, and one application.

I said initially that there wasn’t a trivial reduction of a multitype process to a monotype process. There is however a non-trivial embedding of a monotype process in a multitype process. Consider all the vertices of type 1, and all the paths between such vertices. Then draw a new tree consisting of just the type 1 vertices. Two of these are joined by an edge if there is no other type 1 vertex on the unique path between them in the original tree. If that definition is confusing, think of the most sensible way to construct a tree on the type 1 vertices from the original, and you’ve probably chosen this definition.

There are two important things about this new tree. 1) It is a Galton-Watson tree, and 2) if the original tree is critical, then this reduced tree is also critical. Proving 1) is heavily dependent on exactly what definitions one takes for both the multitype branching mechanism and the standard G-W mechanism. Essentially, at a type 1 vertex, the number of type 1 descendents is not dependent on anything that happened at previous generations, nor in other branches of the original tree. This gives IID offspring distributions once it is formalised. As for criticality, we note that by the matrix argument given before, under the irreducibility condition discussed, the expectation of the total population size is infinite iff the expected number of type 1 vertices is also infinite. Since the proportion of type 1 vertices is given by the first element of the left eigenvector, which is positive, we can make a further argument that the number of type 1 vertices has a power-law tail iff the total population size also has a power-law tail.

I want to end by explaining why I was thinking about this model at all. In many previous posts I’ve discussed the forest fire model, where occasionally all the edges in some large component are deleted, and the component becomes a set of singletons again. We are interested in the local limit. That is, what do the large components look like from the point of view of a single vertex in the component? If we were able to prove that the large components have BCRT as the scaling limit, this would answer this question.

This holds for the original random graph process. There are two sensible ways to motivate this. Firstly, given that a component is a tree (which it is with high probability if its size is O(1) ), its distribution is that of the uniform tree, and it is known that this has BCRT as a scaling limit [1]. Alternatively, we know that the components have a Poisson Galton-Watson process as a local limit by the same argument used to calculate the increments of the exploration process. So we have an alternative description of the BCRT appearing: the scaling limit of G-W trees conditioned on their size.

Regarding the forest fires, if we stop the process at some time T>1, we know that some vertices have been burned several times and some vertices have never received an edge. What is clear though is that if we specify the age of each vertex, that is, how long has elapsed since it was last burned; conditional on this, we have an inhomogeneous random graph. Note that if we have two vertices of ages s and t, then the probability that there is an edge between them is $1-e^{-\frac{s\wedge t}{n}}$, ie approximately $\frac{s\wedge t}{n}$. The function giving the probabilities of edges between different types of vertices is called the kernel, and here it is sufficiently well-behaved (in particular, it is bounded) that we are able to use the results of Bollobas et al in [2], where they discuss general sparse inhomogeneous random graphs. They show, among many other things, that in this setting as well the local limit is a multitype branching process.

So in conclusion, we have almost all the ingredients towards proving the result we want, that forest fire components have BCRT scaling limit. The only outstanding matter is that the Miermont result deals with a finite number of types, whereas obviously in the setting where we parameterise by age, the set of types is continuous. In other words, I’m working hard!

References

[1] Aldous – The Continuum Random Tree III

[2] Bollobas, Janson, Riordan – The phase transition in inhomogeneous random graphs

[3] Le Gall – Random Trees and Applications

[4] Miermont – Invariance principles for spatial multitype Galton-Watson trees

# Convergence of Transition Probabilities

As you can see, I haven’t got round to writing a post for a while. Some of my reasons for this have been good, and some have not. One reason has been that I’ve had to give a large number of tutorials for the fourth quarter of the second year probability course here in Oxford. The second half of this course concerns discrete-time Markov chains, and the fourth problem sheet discusses various modes of convergence for such models, as well as a brief tangent onto Poisson Processes. I’ve written more about Poisson Processes than perhaps was justifiable in the past, so I thought I’d say some words about convergence of transition probabilities in discrete-time Markov chains.

Just to be concrete, let’s assume the state space K is finite, and labelled {1,2,…,k}, so that it becomes meaningful to discuss

$p_{12}^{(n)}:=\mathbb{P}(X_n=2|X_0=1).$

That is, the probability that if we start at state 1, then after n ‘moves’ we are at state 2. We are interested in the circumstances under which this converges to the stationary distribution. The heuristic is that we can view a time-step of a Markov chain as an operation on the space of distributions on K. Note that this operation is deterministic. If this sounds complicated, what we mean is that we specify an initial distribution, that is the distribution of $X_0$. If we consider the distribution of $X_1$, this is given by $\lambda P$, where $\lambda$ is the initial distribution, and P the transition matrix.

Anyway, the heuristic is that the stationary distribution is the unique fixed point of this operation on the space of distributions. It is therefore not unreasonable to assume that unless there are some periodic effects, we expect repeated use of this operation to move us closer to this fixed point.

We can further clarify this by considering the matrix form. Note that a transition P always has an eigenvalue equal to 1. This is equivalent to say that there is a solution to $\pi P=\pi$. Note it is not immediately equivalent to saying that P has a stationary distribution, as the latter must be non-negative and have elements summing to one. Only the first property is difficult, and relies on some theory or cleverness to prove. It can also be shown that all eigenvalues satisfy $|\lambda|\le 1$, and in general, there will be a single eigenvalue (ie dimension 1 eigenspace) with $|\lambda|=1$, and the rest satisfies $|\lambda|<1$. Then, if we diagonalise P, it is clear why $\pi P^n$ converges entry-wise, as $\pi UP^n U^{-1}$ converges. In the latter, only the entries in the row corresponding to $\lambda=1$ converge to something non-zero.

In summary, there is a strong heuristic for why in general, the transition probabilities should converge, and if they converge, that they should converge to the stationary distribution. In fact, we can prove that for any finite Markov chain, $p_{ij}^{(n)}\rightarrow \pi_j$, provided we two conditions hold. The conditions are that the chain is irreducible and aperiodic.

In the rest of this post, I want to discuss what might go wrong when these conditions are not satisfied. We begin with irreducibility. A chain is irreducible if it has precisely one communicating class. That means that we can get from any state to any other state, not necessarily in one step, with positive probability. One obvious reason why the statement of the theorem cannot hold in this setting is that $\pi$ is not uniquely defined when the chain is not irreducible. Suppose, for example, that we have two closed communicating classes A and B. Then, supported on each of them is an invariant distribution $\pi^A$ and $\pi^B$, so any affine combination of the two $\lambda \pi^A+(1-\lambda) \pi^B$ will give a stationary distribution for the whole chain.

In fact, the solution to this problem is not too demanding. If we are considering $p_{ij}^{(n)}$ for $i\in A$ a closed communicating class, then we know that $p_{ij}^{(n)}=0$ whenever $j\not\in A$. For the remaining j, we can use the theorem in its original form on the Markov chain, with state space reduced to A. Here, it is now irreducible.

The only case left to address is if i is in an open communicating class. In that case, it suffices to work out the hitting probabilities starting from i of each of the closed communicating classes. Provided these classes themselves satisfy the requirements of the theorem, we can write

$p_{ij}^{(n)}\rightarrow h_i^A \pi^A_j,\quad i\not\in A, j\in A.$

To prove this, we need to show that as the number of steps grows to infinity, the probability that we are in closed class A converges to $h_i^A$. Then, we decompose this large number of steps so to say that not only have we entered A with roughly the given probability, but in fact with roughly the given probability we entered A a long time in the past, and so there has been enough time for the original convergence result to hold in A.

Now we turn to periodicity. If a chain has period k, this says that we can split the state space into k classes $A_1,\ldots,A_k$, such that $p_{ij}^{(n)}=0$ whenever $n\not\equiv j-i \mod k$. Equivalently, the directed graph describing the possible transitions of the chain is k-partite. This definition makes it immediately clear that $p_{ij}^{(n)}$ cannot converge in this case. However, it is possible that $p_{ij}^{(kn)}$ will converge. Indeed, to verify this, we would need to consider the Markov chain with transition matrix $P^k$. Note that this is no longer irreducible, as it there are no transitions allowed between classes $A_1,\ldots,A_k$. Indeed, a more formal definition of the period, in terms of the lcd of possible return times allows us to conclude that there is no finer reducibility structure. That is, $A_1,\ldots,A_k$ genuinely are the closed classes when we consider the chain with matrix $P^k$. And so the Markov chain with transition matrix $P^k$ restricted to any of the $A_i$s satisfies the conditions of the theorem.

There remains one case which I’ve casually brushed over. When we were discussing the irreducible case, I said that if we had at least one communicating classes, then we could work out the limiting transition probabilities from a state in an open class to a state in a closed class by calculating the hitting probability of that closed class, then applying the standard version of the theorem to that closed class. This relies on the closed class being aperiodic.

Suppose otherwise that the destination closed class A has period k as before. If it were to be the case that the number of steps required to arrive at A had some fixed value mod k, or modulo a non-trivial divisor of k, then we certainly wouldn’t have convergence, for the same reasons as in the globally periodic case. However, we should ask whether we can ever have convergence?

In fact, the answer is yes. For concreteness, and because it’s easier to write ‘odd’ and ‘even’ than $m \mod k$, let’s assume A has size 2 and period 2. That is, once we arrive in A, thereafter we alternate deterministically between the two states. Anyway, for some large time n, we can write $p_{ca}^{(n)}$ for $a\in A, c\not\in A$ as:

$p_{ca}^{(n)}=h_i^A(n),$

where the latter term is the probability that we arrive in A at a time-step which has the same parity as n. It’s not terribly hard to come up with an example where this holds, and this idea holds in greater generality, where A has period k (and not necessarily just k states), we have to demand that the probability of arriving at a time which is a mod k is equal for all a in [0,k-1].

Of course, for applications, we don’t normally care much about irreducible chains, and we can easily remove periodicity by introducing so-called laziness, whereby on each time-step we flip a coin (biased if necessary) and stay put if it comes up heads, and apply the transition matrix if it comes up tails. Then it’s possible to get from any state to itself in one step, and so we are by construction aperiodic.

# Mixing Times 4 – Avoiding Periodicity

A Markov chain is periodic if you can partition the state space such it is possible to be in a particular class only at certain, periodic times. Concretely, suppose we can find a decomposition into classes $\Omega=V_1\cup\ldots\cup V_k$ such that conditional on $X_t\in V_i$, we have $\mathbb{P}(X_{t+1}\in V_{i+1})=1$, where the indices of the Vs are taken modulo k. Such a chain is called periodic with period k. In most cases, we would want to define the period to be the maximal such k.

Why is periodicity a problem? It prevents convergence to equilibrium. The distribution at time t has some fairly strong dependence on the initial distribution. For example, if the initial distribution is entirely supported on $V_1$ as defined above, then the distribution at time t will be entirely supported on $V_i$, where $i\equiv t \mod k$. In particular, this cannot converge to some equilibrium.

Aperiodicity thus becomes a necessary condition in any theorem on convergence to equilibrium. Note that by construction this is only relevant for chains in discrete time. In an first account of Markov chains, most of the examples will either have a small state space, for which the transition matrix will have to contain lots of zeros before it stands a chance of being periodic, or obviously aperiodic birth-death or queue type processes. But some of the combinatorially motivated chains we consider for interesting mixing properties are more likely to be periodic. In particular, for a random walk on a group say, the generator measure may well be supported only on a small subset of the whole group, which is completely natural (eg transpositions as a subset of the symmetric group). Then it becomes more plausible that periodicity might arise because of some underlying regularity or symmetry in the group structure.

My first claim is that periodicity is not a disaster for convergence properties of Markov chains. Firstly, by the definition above, $P^k(x,y)$ for $x,y\in V_1$ is an irreducible (aperiodic if k is maximal) transition matrix on $V_1$, and so we have convergence to some equilibrium distribution on $V_1$ of $(X_{kt+a})$ or similar. An initial distribution mixed between classes gives a mix of such equilibria. Alternatively, we could think about large-time ergodic properties. By taking an average over all distributions up to some large t, the periodic problems get smoothed out. So, for mixing on a periodic chain, it might be possible to make headway with Cesaro mixing, which looks at the speed of convergence of the ergodic average distribution.

In most cases, though, we prefer to alter the chain directly to remove periodicity, or even any chance of periodicity. The preferred method in many contexts is to replace the transition matrix P with $\frac12 (P+I)$. This says that at every time t, we toss an independent fair coin, and with probability 1/2 make the transition suggested by P, and with probability 1/2 we stay where we are. Note that if a chain is irreducible, and some P(x,x)>0, then it is definitely aperiodic, as x cannot be in more than one class as per the definition of periodicity.

If you want to know about the mixing time of the original chain, note that this so-called lazy chain moves at half the speed of the original, so to get exact asymptotics (eg in the case of cutoff, that is mixing speed faster than the scale of the mixing time) you must multiply by 2. Also note that all of the eigenvalues of $\frac12 (P+I)$ are non-negative, and in fact, the eigenvalues are subject to a linear transform in the construction of the lazy transition matrix $\lambda\mapsto \frac12(1+\lambda)$.

Note that choosing 1/2 as the parameter is unnecessary. Firstly, it would suffice to take some $P(x,x)=\epsilon$ and rescale the rest of the row appropriately. Also, in some cases, a different constant gives a more natural interpretation of the underlying mechanism. For example, one model worth considering is the Random Transposition Random Walk on the symmetric group, where at time t we multiply (ie compose) with a transposition chosen uniformly at random. This model is interesting partly because the orbits of an element resemble, at least initially, the component size process of a Erdos-Renyi random graph, on the grounds that when the number of transpositions is small, they don’t interact too much, so can be viewed as independent edges. Anyway, some form of laziness is needed in RTRW, otherwise the chain will alternative between odd and even permutations. In this case, 1/2 is not the most natural choice. The most sensible way to sample random transpositions is to select the two elements of [n] to be transposed uniformly and independently at random. Thus each transposition is selected with probability $\frac{2}{n^2}$, while the identity, which corresponds to ‘lazily’ staying at the current state in the random walk, is selected with probability 1/n.

The lazy chain is also useful when the original chain has a lot of symmetry involved. In particular, if the original chain involves ‘switching’ say one coordinate. The best example is the random walk on the vertices of the n-hypercube, but there are others. Here, the most helpful way to visualise the configuration is to choose a coordinate uniformly at random and then flip its value (from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0). Now the lazy chain can be viewed similarly, but note that the dependence on the current value of the coordinate is suppressed. That is, having chosen the coordinate to be affected, we set it to be 0 with probability 1/2 and 1 with probability 1/2, irrespective of the prior value at that coordinate. Thus instead of viewing the action on coordinates to be ‘stay or switch’, we can view the action on the randomly chosen coordinate to be ‘randomly resample’, to use statistical terminology. This is ideal for coupling, because from the time coordinate j is first selected, the value at that coordinate is independent of the past, and in particular, the initial value or distribution. So we can couple arbitrary initial configurations or distributions, and we know that as soon as all coordinates have been selected (a time that can be described as a coupon collector problem), the chains are well coupled, that is, the values are the same.

Note that one way we definitely get periodicity is if the increment distribution for random walk on a group is supported entirely in a single coset of a normal subgroup. Why? Well if we take $H\lhd G$ to be the normal subgroup, and gH to be the relevant coset, then $P^t(g',\cdot)$ is supported entirely on $g^tg'H$, so is periodic with period equal to the order of gH in the quotient group G/H. Note that if the coset is the normal subgroup itself, then it might well include support on the identity, which immediately makes the chain aperiodic. However, there will be then be no transitions between cosets, so the chain is not irreducible on G.

The previous paragraph is the content of Remark 8.3 in the book we are reading. My final comment is that normality is precisely what is needed for this to hold. The key idea is that the set of subsets {gH, gHgH, gHgHgH, … } forms a partition of the group. This is certainly true if H is normal and gH generates G/H. If the latter statement is not true, then the set of subsets still forms a partition, but of some subset of G. The random walk is then neither irreducible nor aperiodic on the reduced state space. If H is not normal, then there are no such restrictions. For example, gHgH might be equal to the whole group G. Then the random walk is aperiodic, as this would imply we can move between any pair of states in two steps, and so by extension between any pair of states in three steps. (2,3)=1, hence the chain is aperiodic. As a concrete example, consider

$\tau=\langle (1 2)\rangle \leq S_3,$

the simplest example of a non-normal subgroup. Part of the problem is that cosets are different in the left-case and the right-case. Consider the left coset of $\tau$ given by $\sigma\tau=\{(1 2 3),(2 3)\}$. These elements have order three and two respectively, and so by a similar argument to the general one above, this random walk is aperiodic.

# Mixing Times 1 – Reversing Markov Chains

A small group of us have started meeting to discuss Levin, Peres and Wilmer’s book on Markov Chains and Mixing Times. (The plan is to cover a couple of chapters every week, then discuss points of interest and some of the exercises – if anyone is reading this and fancies joining, let me know!) Anyway, this post is motivated by something we discussed in our first session.

Here are two interesting facts about Markov Chains. 1) The Markov property can be defined in terms of products of transition probabilities giving the probability of a particular initial sequence. However, a more elegant and general formulation is to say that, conditional on the present, the past and the future are independent. 2) All transition matrices have at least one equilibrium distribution. In fact, irreducible Markov Chains have precisely one equilibrium distribution. Then, if we start with any distribution, the distribution of the chain at time t converges to the equilibrium distribution.

But hang on. This might be a fairly serious problem. On the one hand we have given a definition of the Markov property that is symmetric in time, in the sense that it remains true whether we are working forwards or backwards. While, on the other hand, the convergence to equilibrium is very much not time-symmetric: we move from disorder to order as time advances. What has gone wrong here?

We examine each of the properties in turn, then consider how to make them fit together in a non-contradictory way.

Markov Property

As many of the students in the Applied Probability course learned the hard way, there are many ways to define the Markov property depending on context, and some are much easier to work with than others. For a Markov chain, you can find a way to say that the transition probability $\mathbb{P}(X_{n+1}=x_{n+1}\,|\,X_n=x_n,\ldots,X_0=x_0)$ is independent of $x_0,\ldots,x_{n-1}$. Alternatively, you can use this to give an inductive specification for the probability of the first n values of X being some sequence.

It requires a moment’s checking to see that the earlier definition of past/future independence is consistent with this. Let’s first check that we haven’t messed up a definition somewhere, and that the time-reversal of a general Markov chain does have the Markov property, even as defined in the context of a Markov chain.

For clarity, consider $X_0,X_1,\ldots, X_N$ a Markov chain on some finite state space, with N some fixed finite end time. We aren’t losing anything by reversing over a finite time interval – after all, we need to know how to do it over a finite time interval before it could possibly make sense to do it over $(-\infty,\infty)$. We examine $(Y_n)_{n=0}^N$ defined by $Y_n:= X_{N-n}$.

$\mathbb{P}(X_n=x_n|X_{n+1}=x_{n+1},\ldots,X_N=x_N)=\mathbb{P}(X_n=x_n|X_{n+1}=x_{n+1})$

is the statement of the Markov property for $(Y_n)$. We rearrange the left hand side to obtain:

$=\frac{\mathbb{P}(X_n=x_n,X_{n+1}=x_{n+1},\ldots,X_N=x_N)}{\mathbb{P}(X_{n+1}=x_{n+1},\ldots,X_N=x_N)}$

$=\frac{\mathbb{P}(X_N=x_N|X_n=x_n,\ldots,X_{N-1}=x_{N-1})\mathbb{P}(X_n=x_n,\ldots,X_{N-1}=x_{N-1})}{\mathbb{P}(X_N=x_N|X_{n+1}=x_{n+1},\ldots,X_{N-1}=x_{N-1})\mathbb{P}(X_{n+1}=x_{n+1},\ldots,X_{N-1}=x_{N-1})}.$

Now, by the standard Markov property on the original chain $(X_n)$, the first probability in each of the numerator and denominator are equal. This leaves us with exactly the same form of expression as before, but with one fewer term in the probability. So we can iterate until we end up with

$\frac{\mathbb{P}(X_n=x_n,X_{n+1}=x_{n+1})}{\mathbb{P}(X_{n+1}=x_{n+1})}=\mathbb{P}(X_n=x_n|X_{n+1}=x_{n+1}),$

as required.

So there’s nothing wrong with the definition. The reversed chain Y genuinely does have this property, regardless of the initial distribution of X.

In particular, if our original Markov chain starts at a particular state with probability 1, and we run it up to time N, then saying that the time-reversal is a Markov chain too is making a claim that we have a non-trivial chain that converges from some general distribution at time 0 to a distribution concentrated at a single point by time N. This seems to contradict everything we know about these chains.

Convergence to Equilibrium – Markov Property vs Markov Chains

It took us a while to come up with a reasonable explanation for this apparent discrepancy. In the end, we come to the conclusion that Markov chains are a strict subset of stochastic processes with the Markov property.

The key thing to notice is that a Markov chain has even more regularity than the definition above implies. The usual description via a transition matrix says that the probability of moving to state y at time t+1 given that you are at state x at time t is some function of x and y. The Markov property says that this probability is independent of the behaviour up until time t. But we also have that the probability is independent of t. The transition matrix P has no dependence on time t – for example in a random walk we do not have to specify the time to know what happens next. This is the property that fails for the non-stationary time-reversal.

In the most extreme example, we say $X_0=x_0$ with probability 1. So in the time reversal, $\mathbb{P}(Y_N=x_0|Y_{N-1}=y_{N-1})=1$ for all $y_{N-1}$. But it will obviously not be the case in general that $\mathbb{P}(Y_n=x_0|Y_{n-1}=y_{n-1})=1$ for all $y_{n-1}$, as this would mean the chain Y would be absorbed after one step at state $x_0$, which is obviously not how the reversal of X should behave.

Perhaps the best way to reconcile this difference is to consider this example where you definitely start from $x_0$. Then, a Markov chain in general can be thought of as a measure on paths, that is $\Omega^N$, with non-trivial but regular correlations between adjacent components. (In the case of stationarity, all the marginals are equal to the stationary distribution – a good example of i.d. but not independent RVs.) This is indexed by the transition matrix and the initial distribution. If the initial distribution is a single point mass, then this can be viewed as a restriction to a smaller set of possible paths, with measures rescaled appropriately.

What have we learned?

Well, mainly to be careful about assuming extra structure with the Markov property. Markov Chains are nice because there is a transition matrix which is constant in time. Other processes, such as Brownian motion are space-homogeneous, where the transitions, or increments in this context, are independent of time and space. However, neither of these properties are true for a general process with the Markov property. Indeed, we have seen in a post from a long time ago that there are Markov processes which do not have the Strong Markov Property, which seems unthinkable if we limit our attention to chain-like processes.

Most importantly, we have clarified the essential point that reversing a Markov Chain only makes sense in equilibrium. It is perfectly possibly to define the reversal of a chain not started at a stationary distribution, but lots of unwelcome information from the forward chain ends up in the reversed chain. In particular, the theory of Markov Chains is not broken, which is good.

# The Perron-Frobenius Theorem for Stochastic Matrices

This article was prompted by a question asked by one of my students about 5 minutes before the end of the final lecture of my Markov Chains course in Linyi. Although I didn’t have time to think about it right then, the flight home offered plenty of opportunity for having a play around. I am well aware that the proof given below is not the best one, but the ideas of minimising quadrants of a matrix seemed fairly natural. Anyway, it’s been sitting on my desktop for over two months now, so I decided I should put it up.

———

Recall that the transition probabilities of a finite Markov chain are determined by a stochastic matrix P. That is, each row of P is a probability distribution. In both theory and applications, the existence and properties of an invariant distribution is of interest. This is a probability distribution $\pi$ satisfying the relation:

$\pi P=\pi.$ (1)

It is clear that $\bigg(\begin{smallmatrix}1\\ \vdots\\1\end{smallmatrix}\bigg)$ is a right- or column eigenvector of P, with eigenvalue 1. Since the spectrum of $P^T$ is the same as that of P, we conclude that 1 is a left-eigenvalue of P also. So we can be assured of the existence of a vector $\pi$ satisfying (1). What is unclear is that this eigenvector $\pi$ should be a probability distribution. Since at least one entry must be non-zero, it will suffice to show that every entry of $\pi$ is non-negative.

A necessary condition for the uniqueness of an invariant distribution is that the Markov chain be irreducible. This is best defined using the terminology of random walks: the chain is irreducible if for every pair of states $i,j\in I$, it is possible to move from i to j and back again. In terms of the transition matrix, P is irreducible if it is not block upper-triangular, up to reordering rows and columns.

We want to show that when P is irreducible, the (unique) 1-eigenvector is a probability distribution. The standard method proposed in this context is to exhibit the invariant distribution directly. For example, Norris’s Markov Chains defines

$\gamma_i^k=\text{ expected time spent in i between visits to k }=\mathbb{E}_k\sum_{n=0}^{T_k}1_{\{X_n=i\}},$

and shows that $(\gamma_i^k)_{i\in I}$ satisfies (1).

Nonetheless, the result required is clearly at least one step removed from the probabilistic interpretation, so it would be satisfying to find a direct proof of existence. Typically, one quotes the substantially more general theorem of Perron and Frobenius, the most relevant form of which is:

Theorem (Perron-Frobenius): Given A a non-negative and irreducible square matrix. Then there is a positive real eigenvalue $\lambda$ with multiplicity 1 and such that all other eigenvalues have absolute value less than or equal to $\lambda$. Then the (unique up to scaling) left- and right-eigenvectors corresponding to $\lambda$ are positive.

Here we present a short proof of this result in the case where A is the (stochastic) transition matrix of a Markov chain.

Proposition: An irreducible stochastic matrix has a 1-eigenvector with all entries non-negative.

Proof: We show instead the contrapositive: that if a stochastic matrix has a 1-eigenvector with both negative and non-negative components, then it is reducible. The motivation is this third eigenvector given in example (2). Observe that the communicating classes are $\{1,2\}$ and $\{3\}$, and it is not hard to see that for any eigenvector with negative and non-negative components, the sign of a component is a class property.

Informally, given an $n\times n$ stochastic matrix P, and a 1-eigenvector $\pi$ with this property, we relabel the states so that the non-negative components, which we call $A\subset I$ are first. That is, in a moderate abuse of notation:

$\pi=(\underbrace{\pi_A}_{\geq 0}\quad\underbrace{\pi_B}_{<0}).\quad\text{ If we write P as }\begin{pmatrix}P_{AA}&P_{AB}\\P_{BA}&P_{BB}\end{pmatrix},$

our aim is to show that the sub-matrices $P_{AB}$ and $P_{BA}$ are both zero. This implies that states in A and states in B do not communicate, showing that P is reducible. We can formulate this as a linear programming problem:

$\text{Maximise }\sum_{\substack{x\in A,y\in B\\x\in B, y\in A}}p_{xy}\text{ s.t. }\begin{cases}p_{xy}\geq 0&\forall x,y\in I\\p_{x1}+\ldots+p_{xn}=1&\forall x\in I\\\pi_1p_{1y}+\ldots+\pi_np_{ny}=\pi_y&\forall y\in I\end{cases}$

It suffices to show that this maximum is 0. Now, we take $|A|=i$, and assume that $1\leq i\leq n-1$, that is, there are a positive number of negative and non-negative components. Noting that the sum of the rows in a stochastic matrix is 1, we may consider instead:

$\text{Minimise }\sum_{\substack{x,y\in A\\x,y\in B}}p_{xy}\text{ s.t. }\begin{cases}p_{xy}\geq 0&\forall x,y\in I\\p_{x1}+\ldots+p_{xn}=1&\forall x\in I\\\pi_1p_{1y}+\ldots+\pi_np_{ny}=\pi_y&\forall y\in I\end{cases}$

and it will suffice to show that this minimum is n. To do this, we consider instead the dual:

$\text{Maximise }\lambda_1+\ldots+\lambda_n+\pi_1\mu_1+\ldots+\pi_n\mu_n,$

$\text{ s.t. }\lambda_x+\pi_y\mu_x\leq\begin{cases}1&\text{if }x,y\leq i\text{ or }x,y\geq i+1\& \text{otherwise}\end{cases}$

The objective is certainly bounded by n. And in fact this is attainable, for example by taking:

$\lambda_1=\ldots=\lambda_i=1,\quad \lambda_{i+1}=\ldots=\lambda_n=0$

$\mu_1=\ldots=\mu_i=0,\quad \mu_{i+1}=-\frac{1}{\pi_{i+1}}, \ldots,\mu_n=-\frac{1}{\pi_n}.$

Applying strong duality for linear programming problems completes the proof.